L&T Infotech Placement Papers | Aptitude, Reasoning & Verbal Ability Model Papers


L&T Infotech Placement Papers | Aptitude, Reasoning & Verbal Ability Model Papers.


Candidates who're looking for L&T  Placement Papers can see our large collection of L&T Placement Papers, mock checks, pattern papers and units of necessary questions for preparation of L&T Placement Examination. Here candidates can apply some pattern questions primarily based on Aptitude, Reasoning and Verbal Ability to strengthen the extent of efficiency. By practising the pattern query contenders will get an concept concerning the  L&T Test Pattern.


L&T Infotech Placement Papers



L&T Placement Papers

Here, we offered some fascinating questions on Aptitude, Reasoning and Verbal Ability which can enable you to clear the test of L&T. The pattern questions are collected from earlier papers of  L&T  Placement Test. Do attempt every set of questions offered in the below article on every class individually. By taking part in the sample test contenders will acquire lots of evaluation expertise of it. Please visit Jobfindo to get newest updates about job alternatives, interview questions, placement papers, and so on.

L&T Aptitude Test Sample Papers


1.The only people to attend a conference were four ship captains and the first mates of three of those captains. The captains were L, M, N and O; the first mates were A, D and G. Each person in turn delivered a report to the assembly as follow: Each of the first mates delivered their report exactly after his or her captain. The first captain to speak was M, and captain N spoke after him.Among the following which is not an appropriate order of delivered reports?

A.M, A, N, G, O, L, D
B.M, D, N, G, L, O, A
C.M, N, A, O, D, L, G
D.M, N, G, D, O, L, A

Answer: D

2. In case L speaks after A, and A is the third of the first mates to speak, then among the following statements which would be untrue?

A.O spoke immediately after G.
B.he order of the first four speakers was M, G, N, D.
C.O’s first mate was present.
D.A was the fourth speaker after M.

Answer: D

3. Among the following statements which statement must be true?

A.In case the second speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.
B.In case the second speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
C.In case the third speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
D.In case the third speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.

Answer: A

4. In case A spoke immediately after L and immediately before O, and O was not the last speaker, L spoke

A.second
B.third
C.fourth
D.fifth

Answer: C

5. In case G is M’s first mate, D could be the person who spoke immediately

A.prior to T
B.prior to L
C.prior to V
D.after T

Answer: D

6. In case A is the third of the first mates to speak, and L is the captain whose first mate is not present, which among the following statements must be true?

A.A spoke sometime before L.
B.D spoke sometime before O
C.L spoke sometime before O
D.O spoke sometime before L

Answer: A

7. Among the following statements, which would make M, D, N, G, L, O, A the only possible sequence of speakers?

A.D is M’s first mate; G is N’s first mate; A is O’s first mate.
B.D is M’s first mate; G is N’s first mate; A was the second to speak after L.
C.The order of the first four speakers was M, D, N, G.
D.The order of the last three speakers was L, O, A.

Answer: B

8. (M, N, O and P are all different individuals)
I. M is the daughter of N.
II. N is the son of O
III. O is the father of P.
   Among the following statements, which is true ?

A.O is the uncle of M.
B.P and N are brothers
C.M is the daughter of P.
D.If B is the daughter of N, then M and B are sisters.

Answer: D

Solution: 
O / N P M – B

9. Which among the following statements is contradictory to the above premises?

A.P is the father of M.
B.O has three children.
C.M has one brother.
D.M is the granddaughter of O.

Answer: A

10. If B is the son of N and B has one brother, D, then I. M is the sister of D. II. D and N are brothers. III. O is the grandfather of D.

A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I and III only

Answer: C

11. If STRAY is coded as TUSBZ then how will MOURN be coded?
A.LPVSO
B.NPVSO
C.NVPSO
D.NPSVO

Answer: B

12. If DOWN is coded as FQYP then how will WITH be coded?

A.KYN
B.JYK
C.YKVJ
D.JKVY

Answer: C

13. If BINARY is coded as DHPZTX then how will KIDNAP be coded?

A.MKFPCQ
B.MHFPZQ
C.IKFMYO
D.MHFMCO

Answer: D

14. If RASCAL is coded as QZRBZK then how will SOLDER be coded? 

A.RNMEDQ
B.RPKEDS
C.TPMEFS
D.RNKCDQ

Answer: D

15. If MAGIC is coded as PXJFF then how will LEASH be coded? ocdqk

A.PBDVD
B.OBDVL
C.OHEOK
D.OBDPK

Answer: D

16. If P x Q means— ‘P is the brother of Q’, P ÷ Q means ‘P is the son of Q’ and ‘P — Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’ , then which of the following relations will show that Q is the maternal uncle of P ?

A.Q x R÷ P
B.Q÷ R – P
C.P x R – Q
D.P÷ R – Q

Answer: D

17. In a row of girls, Nivedita is 15th from the left and Vimla is 23rd from the right. If they interchange their positions,then Nivedita becomes 18 th from the left. Then at what position will Vimla be from the right?

A.25th
B.24th
C.26th
D.20th

Answer: C

18. In the class of 40 students, if Sanju is at 30th place from one end, what is his position from the other end?

A.9th
B.12th
C.10th
D.11th

Answer: D

19. Pointing to a man Snehlata says, “He is the only son of my father’s father.” How is Snehlata related to the man ?

A.Mother
B.Grand daughter
C.Niece
D.None of these

Answer: D

20. Pointing to a lady in photograph, Madhurendra said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother’s mother.” How is Madhurendra related to the lady?

A.Nephew
B.Uncle
C.Maternal uncle
D.Brother

Answer: D

21. As ‘Hungry’ is related to ‘Food’ in the same way ‘Thirsty’ is related to what?

A.Drink
B.Tea
C.Coffee
D.Water

Answer: D

22. As ‘Fly’ is related to ‘Parrot’ in the same way ‘Creep’ is related to what?

A.Snake
B.Rabbit
C.Fish
D.Crocodile

Answer: A

23. As ‘Hindu worshiper’ is related to ‘Temple’ in the same way ‘Maulvi’ is related to what?

A.Monastery
B.Church
C.Mosque
D.Sikh temple

Answer: C

24. If ”˜M’ denotes ”˜x·’, ”˜K, denotes ”˜—’, ”˜T’ denotes ”˜÷ and ”˜R’ denotes ”˜+’, then; 20 K 16 T 8 M 4 R 6 = ?

A.18
B.6
C.12
D.18

Answer: B

25. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TERMINATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.More than three

Answer: A

26. Statements :
 All apples are oranges
 Some oranges are papayas
 Conclusions :
 I. Some apples are papayas
 II. Some papayas are apples

A.if only conclusion I follows
B.if only conclusion II follows
C.if either I or II follows
D.if neither I or II follows

Answer: D

27. Statements:
 All puppets are dolls
 All dolls are toys
 Conclusions:
 I. Some toys are puppets
 II. All toys are puppets

A.if only conclusion I follows
B.if only conclusion II follows
C.if either I or II follows
D.if neither I or II follows

Answer: A

28. Statements :
 All coins are crows
 Some crows are pens
 Conclusions :
 I. No pen is coin
 II. Some coins are pens

A.if only conclusion I follows
B.if only conclusion II follows
C.if either I or II follows
D.if neither I or II follows

Answer: D

29. Statements :
 All men are married
 Some men are educated
 Conclusions :
 I. Some married are educated
 II. Some educated are married

A.if only conclusion I follows
B.if only conclusion II follows
C.if either I or II follows
D.if both I and II.

Answer: D

30. Statements :
 Some players are singers
 All singers are tall
 Conclusions :
 I. Some players are tall
 II. All players are tall

A.if only conclusion I follows
B.if only conclusion II follows
C.if either I or II follows
D.if neither I or II follows

Answer: A

L&T Reasoning Test Placement Papers


1. Statement:
As many as ten coaches of a passenger train have been derailed and have blocked both pairs of the railway tracks.
Courses of action:
I. The railway authorities should immediately send men and equipment to the spot to clear the railway tracks.
II. All the trains running in both directions should be diverted to other routes.

A. If only I follows
B. If only II follows
C. If either I or II follows
D. If neither I nor II follows
E. If both I and II follow

Answer: Option E

Solution:
I is advisable because it will ensure smooth running of trains again. II is advisable because it will reduce the inconvenience of other passengers.

2.Starting from a point P,Sachin walked 20m towards South. He turned left and walked 30m. He then turned left and walked 20m.He again turned left and walked 40m and reached a point Q. How far and in which direction is the point Q from the point P?

A.20mWest
B.10mEast
C.10mWest
D.10mNorth

Answer: Option C

3. Choose out the odd one.

A. Football
B. Volleyball
C. Chess
D. Hockey

Answer: Option C

Solution:
All except chess are outdoor games.

4. In the 1966 Supreme Court decision Miranda v. Arizona, the court held that before the police can obtain statements from a person subjected to an interrogation, the person must be given a Miranda warning. This warning means that a person must be told that he or she has the right to remain silent during the police interrogation. Violation of this right means that any statement that the person makes is not admissible in a court hearing. This paragraph best supports the statement that

A. police who do not warn persons of their Miranda rights are guilty of a crime.
B. a Miranda warning must be given before a police interrogation can begin.
C. the police may no longer interrogate persons suspected of a crime unless a lawyer is present.
D. the 1966 Supreme Court decision in Miranda should be reversed.

Answer: Option B

Solution:
This answer is clearly supported in the second sentence. Nothing in the paragraph suggests that it is a crime not to give a Miranda warning, so choice a is incorrect. Choice c is also wrong because police may interrogate as long as a warning is given. There is no support given for either choice d or e.

5. The world famous Edward Museum in city ‘X’ has introduced the system of pass code for its visitors. The pass codes are generated by machine and automatically change after every one hour during the visiting hours 11 a.m. to 7 p.m. The illustration of pass codes generated batch wise is given below:
Pass code for batch I starting at 11 a.m. things keep dust you all away from never.
Pass code for batch II starting at 12 noon. all dust things you away from never keep.
Pass code for batch III starting at 1 p.m. away things all your from never keep dust.
Pass code for batch IV starting at 2 p.m. from all away your never keep dust things. and so on up to the last batch starting at 6 p.m.

Mr ‘X’ visited the museum at 1 p.m., but was wrongly issued the pass code for 4 p.m. batch which was “left is the hand right to his way”. What is the correct pass code that should have been issued to Mr ‘X’?

A. Way to hand his is the left right
B. Way to his hand is the left right
C. Way to his hand the is left right
D. Way to his hand is the right left

Answer: Option B

Solution:
Here the rule followed is:
In each step the fifth, third and first words become the first, second and third respectively. Fourth word remains at its previous position. Sixth, seventh and eighth words shift one position leftward and the second word becomes the last, i.e., eighth. For the sake of convenience if we assign numeric value to those words, viz. things-1, keep-2, dust-3, your-4, all-5, away-6, from-7 & never-8, the movement will be as follows:
Batch I(11 a.m. – 12 noon): 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Batch II(12 noon – 1 p.m.): 5 3 1 4 6 7 8 2
Batch III(1 p.m. – 2 p.m.): 6 1 5 4 7 8 2 3
Batch IV(2 p.m. – 3 p.m.): 7 5 6 4 8 2 3 1
Batch V(3 p.m. – 4 p.m.): 8 6 7 4 2 3 1 5
Batch VI(4 p.m. – 5 p.m.): 2 7 8 4 3 1 5 6
Batch VII(5 p.m. – 6 p.m.): 3 8 2 4 1 5 6 7
Batch VIII(6 p.m. – 7 p.m.): 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

6. If the digits on the dial of a clock are replaced by alternate English alphabet beginning with D such as D replaces 1, F replaces 2 and so on, then where will be the hour hand at 19.45 O’clock?

A. Between O and Q
B. Between N and P
C. Between P and R
D. Between M and O

Answer: Option C

7. Assertion:
Some people in India are indifferent to the existing reservations in the education and the recruitment fields.
RI. Because these people do not fall under reservation category.
RII. Sometimes reservations cause damage to the merit.

A. Only RI and not RII is the reason for the assertion.
B. only RII and not RI is the reason for the assertion.
C. either RI or RII, but not both, is the reason for the assertion.
D. neither RI nor RII is the reason for the assertion.

Answer: Option D

Solution:
*Indifferent* means having no option. That is, these people are neither against nor advocating reservations. Neither RI nor RII is explaining the reasons as to why these people are indifferent.

8. Nurse Kemp has worked more night shifts in a row than Nurse Rogers, who has worked five. Nurse Miller has worked fifteen night shifts in a row, more than Nurses Kemp and Rogers combined. Nurse Calvin has worked eight night shifts in a row, less than Nurse Kemp. How many night shifts in a row has Nurse Kemp worked?

A. eight
B. nine
C. ten
D. eleven

Answer: Option B

Solution:
Nurse Kemp has worked more shifts in a row than Nurse Calvin; therefore, Kemp has worked more than eight shifts. The number of Kemp’s shifts plus the number of Rogers’s shifts (five) cannot equal fifteen or more, the number of Miller’s shifts. Therefore, Kemp has worked nine shifts in a row (5 + 9 = 14).

9. Nikhil remembers that his sister Kranthi had certainly been in Pune for one day after 16th February but before 21st February. While his mother remembers that Kranthi had certainly visited Pune before 20th February. If both of them are correct, then on which day in February had Kranthi visited Pune?

A. Either 18th or 19th
B. 19th
C. 18th
D. Data inadequate

Answer: Option A

10. FJUL: BOQQ:: LHRX:?

A. BKPR
B. MNCC
C. HRYY
D. HMNC

Answer: Option D

Solution:
The 1st and 3rd letter of the group are each moved to 4 steps backward while the 2nd and 3rd letters are each moved five steps forward to the corresponding letters the second group.

11. A Guarantee is a promise or assurance that attests to the quality of a product that is either (1) given in writing by the manufacturer or (2) given verbally by the person selling the product. Which situation below is the best example of a Guarantee?

A. Melissa purchases a DVD player with the highest consumer ratings in its category.
B. The salesperson advises Curt to be sure that he buys an air conditioner with a guarantee.
C. The local auto body shop specializes in refurbishing and selling used cars.
D. Lori buys a used digital camera from her coworker who says that she will refund Lori’s money if the camera’s performance is not of the highest quality.

Answer: Option D

Solution:
Choices a, b, and c do not describe situations in which a product is guaranteed. Only choice d reflects a situation in which a seller attests to the quality of a product by giving the buyer a promise or assurance about its quality.

12. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
lelibroon means yellow hat
plekafroti means flower garden
frotimix means garden salad
Which word could mean “yellow flower”?

A. lelifroti
B. lelipleka
C. plekabroon
D. frotibroon

Answer: Option B

Solution:
Leli means yellow; broon means hat; pleka means flower; froti means garden; mix means salad. Therefore, lelipleka means yellow flower.

13. Which of the following will come in place of (D)?

A. 36.25
B. 38.65
C. 42.75
D. 82.54
E. None of these

Answer: Option E

Solution:
The series is *0.5, *1.5 , *1.5 , *2.5, *3.5

14. TAILOR : SUIT

A. scheme : agent
B. edit : manuscript
C. revise : writer
D. mention : opinion

Answer: Option B

Solution:
To tailor a suit is to alter it; to edit a manuscript is to alter it.


L&T English Test Model Papers


1. Terrorism and the victimization it causes violate human rights and established norms of human dignity and personal security that is mandatory for _____ existence in any society.
(A) luxurious
(B) sophisticated
(C) harmonious
(D) peaceful
(E) amicable
(F) comfortable

A. C and E
B. F and E
C. B and c
D. C and D

Answer: Option D

Solution:
‘Existance’ in a society can only be ‘harmonious’ or ‘peaceful’ when human rights are unviolated.

2.Pure

A.ify
B.fy
C.fee
D.fe

Answer: Option A

3. On Sundays I go —–

A. fish
B. to fish
C. fishes
D. fishing

Answer: Option D

4. Jane was a hard core feminist and a/an _____ campaigner for women’s issues.
(A) indefatigable
(B) relentless
(C) irregular
(D) indifferent
(E) sluggish
(F) fallacious

A. A and B
B. B and D
C. C and F
D. E and F

Answer: Option A

Solution:
A ‘feminist’ is a campaigner for women’s issues. A campaigner is one who supports or advocates something. Hence he would do that in an indefatigable or a relentless manner.

5. Select the odd one out

A. Tiger
B. Lion
C. Hen
D. Leopard

Answer: Option C

6. I am honest.

A. didn’t I?
B. am I?
C. am not I?
D. aren’t I?

Answer: Option D

7. _____ the topmost branch of the tree sat a monkey making faces _________ us.

A. on, at
B. on, to
C. over, to
D. in, for

Answer: Option A

8. To steal the show

A. to gain an advantage over somebody
B. to do something that is disagreeable
C. to do something that is dangerous
D. to conceal one’s feelings and emotions
E. to attract most of the attention during a performance

Answer: Option E

Solution:
When you are able to attract most of the attention during a performance, you ‘steal the show’.

9. RETRENCH

A. assort
B. attach
C. curtail
D. diversify

Answer: Option C

Solution:
Retrench is to reduce costs or spending in response to economic difficulty, curtail, (reduce or restrict) is its synonym.

10. He finished his exercise. He put away his books.
a) Having finished ———–
b) As he finished ———–
c) Finishing ———–

A. Only A
B. Only B
C. Only C
D. A & B
E. A & C

Answer: Option E

11. She would like this place, if she were to be here.

A. if she has been here
B. if she is here
C. if she were here
D. if she was being here

Answer: Option C

Solution:
Choice (C) replaces the underlined part correctly. (If denotes a future condition and a supposition)

12. If I were you I wouldn’t speak to that lady again.

A. I am you
B. I be you
C. I were to be you
D. I was you
E. No correction required

Answer: Option E

Solution:
The given sentence suggests an improbable condition. The sentence is grammatically correct.

13. She is now completely cured of her illness. She will soon be discharged from the hospital.
(A) Being completely cured of her illness …..
(B) Since she is completely cured …..
(C) Apart from being cured of her illness …..

A. A and C
B. Only A
C. A and B
D. B and C

Answer: Option C

Solution:
‘C’ is not correct because the words ‘apart from’ mean ‘in addition to’.

14. Little
(P) that he had been let down 
(Q) stood by all these years
(R) did he realise
(S) by a colleague whom he had

A. QSPR
B. QSRP
C. RSQP
D. RPSQ

Answer: Option D

15. Only three fourths of the work are complete.

A. has complete
B. have complete
C. is complete
D. had complete

Answer: Option C

 

L&T Placement Paper Syllabus

Quantitative Aptitude Syllabus


  • Probability
  • Permutations & Combinations
  • Algebra
  • Averages
  • Time Speed & Distance
  • Time & Work
  • Profit & Loss
  • Ratio & Proportion
  • Simple & Compound Interest
  • Percentage
  • Number Series
  • Mixtures & Alligations
  • Simplification
  • Number System
  • Heights and Distances
  • Geometry & Mensuration
  • Data Sufficiency
  • Logarithms
  • Progressions
  • LCM and HCL
  • Pipes and Cisterns
  • Partnership
  • Boats and Streams
  • Areas, Volumes

Reasoning Syllabus

  • Number Series
  • Letter Series
  • Analogies
  • Puzzles
  • Syllogisms
  • Binary Logic
  • Clocks & Calendars
  • Cubes & Dice
  • Classification 
  • Blood Relations
  • Coding-Decoding
  • Data Sufficiency
  • Seating Arrangement
  • Venn Diagrams
  • Problem Solving
  • Coded Inequalities
  • Double Lineup
  • Logical Deductions
  • Routes & Networks
  • Grouping & Selections
  • Evaluating Course of Action
  • Statements and Conclusions
  • Mathematical and Computer Operations
  • Critical Reasoning
  • Inferences
  • Situation Reaction Test
  • Decision Making
  • Symbols and Notations
  • Direction Sense Test
  • Logical Sequence Of Words
  • Assertion and Reason
  • Verification of Truth of the Statement
  • Statements and Assumptions
  • Data Interpretation

Verbal Ability Syllabus

  • Synonyms
  • Antonyms
  • Sentence Completion
  • Spelling Test
  • Passage Completion
  • Sentence Arrangement
  • Idioms and Phrases
  • Para Completion
  • Error Correction (Underlined Part)
  • Fill in the blanks
  • Synonyms
  • Prepositions
  • Active and Passive Voice
  • Spotting Errors
  • Substitution
  • Transformation
  • Sentence Improvement
  • Joining Sentences
  • Error Correction (Phrase in Bold)
  • Articles
  • Gerunds
  • Identify the Errors
  • Plural Forms
  • Odd Words
  • Prepositions
  • Suffix
  • Tense
  • Adjectives
  • Homophones
  • Identify the Sentences
  • Nouns
  • Prefix
  • Sentence Pattern
  • Tag Questions


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